IS THE BIBLE AGAINST HOMOSEXUALITY?
Widows, Fatherless, Gay People

Are the widows and fatherless sometimes gay people?

 

Gay men and Lesbians:

          ‘Cursed is the one who perverts the justice due the stranger, the fatherless (or gay man), and widow (or lesbian).’ “And all the people shall say, ‘Amen!’ (Deut. 27:19 NKJV). There is some probability that the Hebrew and Aramaic words usually translated as the fatherless [orphan] (Heb. ya-thom, Aram. yath-ma) and the widow (Heb. al-ma-nah, Aram. Ar-mal-ta) also refer to a gay man and lesbian. I have found a verse in the New Testament that looks like it is saying that a ar-mal-ta should take a wife if she doesn’t have self-control. The Greek New Testament translated the words “to take a wife” as “to marry” there. This is a biased translation because the generic words “to marry” could be used to say the presumably widow is to marry a man and not a woman.

Note: Ar-mal-ta (Widow) is the Biblical or Classical Aramaic pronunciation. Widow is pronounced ar-mil-tha in Chaldean and ar-mil-ta in Assyrian.

          I haven’t found proof that the words ya-thom or yath-ma mean a gay man, but there is some circumstantial evidence that sounds like these words are referring to a gay man. Time will tell if my intuition is correct on whether the definitions of a gay man and lesbian were deleted from these words like the definition of a “gay man” was deleted from the word eunuch. We know that Roman law also defined Eunuchs as gay men. Though the word eunuchs probably also referred to transgender persons. Modern day hijras (eunuchs) in India are gay and transgender persons.

          “But I am saying to those [men] who don’t have wives, and to the widows (arm-la-tha – plural), that it benefits them if they shall be remaining like me. But if they are not enduring, they shall marry. For it is beneficial [for them] to take a wife than to burn with desire.” (1 Cor. 7:8-9 Peshitta Text).  The Aramaic language uses the words “to” or “and” to transfer the same subject matter onto the following person or persons. Compare 1 Corinthians 1:1: “[From] Paul, [the one] called and an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, and the brother Sosthenes.” (Peshitta). This means: “[From] Paul and the brother Sosthenes, who are called and apostles of Jesus Christ by the will of God.”-  So the Aramaic text does seem to say that if these females can’t endure, or don’t have self control, then they are to take a wife. It looks like the word arm-la-tha would translate into “lesbians” here.

          In my opinion, if Paul meant for arm-la-tha to mean “widows,” he wouldn’t have included that word in the first verse when the second verse is referring to the men in the first verse to “take a wife” rather “than burn with desire.” Paul would have said in the first verse something like this: “And to the widows, it is beneficial for them if they remain like me. But if they are not enduring, they shall marry.” And then in another verse or verses he would address the unmarried as: “But I am saying to those [men] who don’t have wives, that it benefits them if they shall be remaining like me. But if they are not enduring, they shall marry. For it is beneficial [for them] to take a wife than to burn with desire.” These renderings would support the traditional interpretation, but of course Paul didn’t word these verses like this. The wording he chose can definitely be interpreted as him exhorting the arm-la-tha (lesbians) to take a wife, based on the rules of Aramaic grammar.

            “You shall not afflict any widow or fatherless [child].” (Ex. 22:22 NKJV). Psalm 94:6 says this: “They slay the widow and the stranger, and murder the fatherless (orphans).” (NKJV). I have never understood why anyone would harm, afflict (oppress) or kill widows and  the fatherless (orphans). The Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek and Latin texts of the Bible all say for believers to not treat widows and orphans that way. So in all of those great cultures, there would be great influence to not oppress them. However, if one understands the widows and orphans to mean lesbians and gay men, then these verses start to make sense. Greek Judaism and Greek Christianity are (or were) clearly homophobic along with Latin Catholicism. The Hebrew and Aramaic Biblical texts aren’t homophobic, though the meaning of certain verses have been corrupted while the text hasn’t been changed. If you add false religion such as Zoroastrianism, which falsely teaches that Gay men are demon possessed, then you see how religion has been used to oppress and kill gay people.

          According to the New Testament, people that were demon possessed knew they were. So if gay people don’t see demons of feel possessed, then they aren’t demon possessed. People are born with a homosexual orientation without having any dealings with the occult. Some of these homosexuals are born to godly parents that include pastors, priests, rabbis, etc.

          Contrarily, schizophrenic people are the ones that believe they are demon possessed. Schizophrenia affects heterosexual, bisexual and homosexual people. Apparently a schizophrenic gay person can fall prey to scam churches that believe they can cast out gay demons. These churches have no authority from the Bible because the Bible never says that people that are gay are demon possessed.

Is the Bible Against Homosexuality? by Preacher Mattai © 2016. All rights reserved.


 


 
 
 
 
 

Sub Pages: LGBT

Eunuchs (cont.)

Esther Eunuchs

Homosexuals

Transgender / Bible Codes

Widows, Fatherless, Gay People


          
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